I wonder what parts of statistics have specific terms existing for them - I see a relevant notion which would be relevant, but not sure if there is a term for it.

If variable values can be ordered then it possesses a

If the values can also be added then they also possess an

A data set to illustrate it:

There are a bit over 7 milliard people in world.

Total wealth owned in world is 241 000 milliard US \$. It is a summable variable.

Since it is summable, it possesses

50 % of world population possesses about 1700 milliard US\$, which is about 0,7 % of the total. This the average wealth of the second half is about US\$ 500. The average wealth of the richer half is about US\$ 68 000.

The value of which 50 % people are richer and 50 % are poorer is the

But now to illustrate my question.

1 % of people own 46 % of all wealth - 110 000 milliard US\$. This makes about 1 500 000 US\$ per member of that 1 %.

It would be interesting to know:

1) the actual number of richest people who own, not 46 % of all wealth, but exactly 50 % of all wealth. Which is clearly a bit bigger than 1 %, but exactly what?

2) the actual value of wealth such that people richer than that possess 50 % of the wealth - obviously less than 1 500 000 US\$, but again how much?

And my question on statistics is:

are there any established terms to

Edit - on your board, dollar sign seems to be handled as a special sign - do not know how to actually show it.

If variable values can be ordered then it possesses a

**median**.If the values can also be added then they also possess an

**average**.A data set to illustrate it:

There are a bit over 7 milliard people in world.

Total wealth owned in world is 241 000 milliard US \$. It is a summable variable.

Since it is summable, it possesses

**average**. Which comes at about 34 000 US \$ per head.50 % of world population possesses about 1700 milliard US\$, which is about 0,7 % of the total. This the average wealth of the second half is about US\$ 500. The average wealth of the richer half is about US\$ 68 000.

The value of which 50 % people are richer and 50 % are poorer is the

**median**.But now to illustrate my question.

1 % of people own 46 % of all wealth - 110 000 milliard US\$. This makes about 1 500 000 US\$ per member of that 1 %.

It would be interesting to know:

1) the actual number of richest people who own, not 46 % of all wealth, but exactly 50 % of all wealth. Which is clearly a bit bigger than 1 %, but exactly what?

2) the actual value of wealth such that people richer than that possess 50 % of the wealth - obviously less than 1 500 000 US\$, but again how much?

And my question on statistics is:

are there any established terms to

**call**the answers to 1) and 2)? How to talk of quantiles of the sum of the values, as opposed to quantiles of the number of observations?Edit - on your board, dollar sign seems to be handled as a special sign - do not know how to actually show it.

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