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 December 1st, 2018, 04:33 AM #1 Newbie   Joined: Dec 2018 From: Canada Posts: 1 Thanks: 0 The inverse of one angle and the side opposite to the angle, which is equal to one, in all triangles gives a diameter of the circumscribed circle. In a right triangle, the inverse of the angle is always 1, which is the circle's diameter, and its opposite's side is 1, that is hypotenuse of 1. $\sin 90 =1$ is the angle $\theta$. My question is, what is the right explanation concerning the inverse of angles with sides $a,b,c$ for all $\triangle ABC$ when the base or the hypotenuse equals to 1? 1) explanation I have three sides $5, 5, 4$ and $1.25, 1.25, 1$ with all the same angles except the base is 1, and all I did is divide sides $5, 5, 4$ by 4 to obtain the simplified version of the triangle sides. $1.25, 1.25, 1$. From the $\triangle ABC$ and 1, the side $c$ opposite to the $\angle C =\sqrt {1-0.68^2}$. Its inverse is the diameter of circumscribed circle in terms of $\sin$, but not in terms of cosine. The law of sines states that: $$\frac {\sin A}{a}=\frac {\sin B}{b}=\frac {\sin C}{c}=\frac {1}{d}$$ where d is the diameter. $$\frac {a}{\sin A}=\frac {b}{\sin B}=\frac {c}{\sin C}={d}$$ where d is the diameter. Last edited by skipjack; December 1st, 2018 at 08:52 AM. Tags circle, diameter Thread Tools Show Printable Version Email this Page Display Modes Linear Mode Switch to Hybrid Mode Switch to Threaded Mode Similar Threads Thread Thread Starter Forum Replies Last Post Byte Geometry 3 March 29th, 2017 03:56 PM Ash Algebra 1 March 12th, 2014 09:50 AM sunita_kharwar Applied Math 0 June 3rd, 2013 12:56 PM mathkid182 Algebra 1 April 15th, 2013 11:47 PM im_with_stupid Algebra 10 January 27th, 2011 05:05 PM

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