January 31st, 2014, 06:34 PM  #1 
Newbie Joined: Jan 2014 Posts: 1 Thanks: 0  Numerical Analysis
Let x0,...,xn be distinct real numbers and l_k(x) be the Lagrange's basis function. Prove that: ? k=0 to k=n ((x_k?x)^j l_k(x)) ? 0, for j=0,1,...,n 
July 7th, 2014, 05:33 AM  #2 
Newbie Joined: Jul 2014 From: jordan Posts: 7 Thanks: 0 
not clear? please write the math symbol between two sign dollars $...$


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analysis, numerical 
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