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 January 31st, 2014, 06:34 PM #1 Newbie   Joined: Jan 2014 Posts: 1 Thanks: 0 Numerical Analysis Let x0,...,xn be distinct real numbers and l_k(x) be the Lagrange's basis function. Prove that: ? k=0 to k=n ((x_k?x)^j l_k(x)) ? 0, for j=0,1,...,n
 July 7th, 2014, 05:33 AM #2 Newbie   Joined: Jul 2014 From: jordan Posts: 7 Thanks: 0 not clear? please write the math symbol between two sign dollars $...$

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