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January 31st, 2014, 06:34 PM   #1
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Numerical Analysis

Let x0,...,xn be distinct real numbers and l_k(x) be the Lagrange's basis function. Prove that:

? k=0 to k=n ((x_k?x)^j l_k(x)) ? 0, for j=0,1,...,n
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July 7th, 2014, 05:33 AM   #2
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From: jordan

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not clear? please write the math symbol between two sign dollars $...$
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