Roberto 37

Can someone please help? Iam Brazil

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am-10.jpg (51.9 KB, 20 views)

Maschke

What do you think about the first one? Just give us your thoughts, don't even edit yourself. Just think about the problem, what it's asking, why it might or might not be true.

Is your language Portuguese? I speak a little Spanish. To me, Portuguese is sort of like Spanish and nothing at all like Spanish at the same time. It's like I "should" be able to understand it but a lot of times I can't.

Roberto 37

I tried to translate in Google, do you understand?

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	limite-10.jpg (17.7 KB, 3 views)
	limite-10.jpg (34.2 KB, 3 views)
	limite-10.jpg (34.2 KB, 6 views)

Maschke

What do you think about the first one? Just give us your thoughts, don't even edit yourself. Just think about the problem, what it's asking, why it might or might not be true.

Roberto 37

I think the letter c is correct; options I and II true.

v8archie

#MeToo

Country Boy

In general, as long as two sequences, $\displaystyle \{an\}$, $\displaystyle \{bn\}$, have finite sums, it is true that
$\displaystyle \lim_{n\to\infty} (a_n+ b_n)= \lim_{n\to\infty} a_n+ \lim_{n\to\infty} b_n$.

$\displaystyle \lim_{n\to\infty} (a_n- b_n)= \lim_{n\to\infty} a_n- \lim_{n\to\infty} b_n$

$\displaystyle \lim_{n\to\infty} (a_n)(b_n)= (\lim_{n\to\infty} a_n)(\lim_{n\to\infty} b_n)$.

$\displaystyle \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a_n}{b_n}= \frac{\lim_{n\to\infty} a_n}{\lim_{n\to\infty}}$
(As long as $\displaystyle \lim_{n\to\infty}$ is not 0.)

From that, it follows immediately that options I and II are true. As for III, I have no idea where "2" might have come from! The limit of $\displaystyle \frac{a_n}{a_n}$ is 1, not 0.