April 3rd, 2017, 07:40 AM  #51 
Senior Member Joined: Mar 2015 From: New Jersey Posts: 1,060 Thanks: 86 
Some insight into previous post can be gained from: Volume paradox  Banach–Tarski especially the answer to post #17 therein. Last edited by zylo; April 3rd, 2017 at 07:46 AM. 
April 3rd, 2017, 08:22 AM  #52  
Senior Member Joined: Mar 2015 From: New Jersey Posts: 1,060 Thanks: 86  Quote:
I gave relevant extracts from Rudin in order to anchor the discussion, and make it relevant to those who don't have Rudin, without any intent to mislead. I have long since agreed to the more precise statement that 1/n does not converge in (0,1), but this apparently is the only thing you understand or are willing to discuss. Please feel free to answer questions with any relevant reference to Rudin, or any other specific reference, regardless of what you think my perception of convergence is, which is irrelevant.  

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homeomorphic, mapping 
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