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 March 16th, 2012, 12:24 PM #1 Newbie   Joined: Mar 2012 Posts: 5 Thanks: 0 Integration theory please help! If v and $\mu$ are measures in (X$\sum$) and v<<$\mu$ (meaning that if $\mu(A)=0$then v(A)=0) Prove that if $\lambda=v+\mu$ is another measure and f:X->[0,$+\infty$ ]is Sigma measurable such that v=f$\lambda$(meaning that v(A)=$\int_A fd\lambda$ )than 0$\leq f<1$ almost everywhere according to $\mu$ (I have proved this) and v=$\frac f {1-f }\mu$
 March 16th, 2012, 03:39 PM #2 Global Moderator   Joined: May 2007 Posts: 6,855 Thanks: 744 Re: Integration theory please help! Please clarify. I can't figure out what you are given and what you want to prove.

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