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March 16th, 2012, 11:24 AM  #1 
Newbie Joined: Mar 2012 Posts: 5 Thanks: 0  Integration theory please help!
If v and are measures in (X) and v<< (meaning that if then v(A)=0) Prove that if is another measure and f:X>[0, ]is Sigma measurable such that v=f(meaning that v(A)= )than 0 almost everywhere according to (I have proved this) and v= 
March 16th, 2012, 02:39 PM  #2 
Global Moderator Joined: May 2007 Posts: 6,807 Thanks: 717  Re: Integration theory please help!
Please clarify. I can't figure out what you are given and what you want to prove.


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