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March 16th, 2012, 11:24 AM   #1
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Integration theory please help!

If v and are measures in (X) and v<< (meaning that if then v(A)=0) Prove that if is another measure and f:X->[0, ]is Sigma measurable such that v=f(meaning that v(A)= )than 0 almost everywhere according to (I have proved this) and v=
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March 16th, 2012, 02:39 PM   #2
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Re: Integration theory please help!

Please clarify. I can't figure out what you are given and what you want to prove.
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