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June 7th, 2018, 03:33 PM  #1 
Senior Member Joined: Oct 2013 From: New York, USA Posts: 622 Thanks: 85  Is This A Statement About Probability That Is Always True?
If there are x trials, the same x possibilities for each trial, and the probability of each outcome on each trial is 1/x, what is the probability that x trials will have each outcome happen once. Am I correct in saying that it is x!/(x^x). It works for two coins, where the probability of one head and one tail is 0.5. 2!/(2^2) = 1/2. Can it be expanded to a general formula for x*y trials having each outcome y times? My first formula would be for y = 1.

June 7th, 2018, 04:20 PM  #2 
Senior Member Joined: Sep 2015 From: USA Posts: 2,197 Thanks: 1152 
looks right to me.


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probability, statement, true 
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