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June 7th, 2018, 02:33 PM   #1
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Is This A Statement About Probability That Is Always True?

If there are x trials, the same x possibilities for each trial, and the probability of each outcome on each trial is 1/x, what is the probability that x trials will have each outcome happen once. Am I correct in saying that it is x!/(x^x). It works for two coins, where the probability of one head and one tail is 0.5. 2!/(2^2) = 1/2. Can it be expanded to a general formula for x*y trials having each outcome y times? My first formula would be for y = 1.
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June 7th, 2018, 03:20 PM   #2
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looks right to me.
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