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June 10th, 2017, 02:19 AM   #1
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Relative risk and odds ratio

Hi all,

I attached my question as a link below and highlighted the parts that I felt I didn't understand.

https://www.dropbox.com/s/99r2uo0xbatbuix/k.png?dl=0

For the first highlighted part, the relative risk is 1.45 and the percentage is 145%. But shouldn't the interpretation say '45% greater risk of outcome' instead?

This way, it would be consistent with the interpretations below it.

If someone could explain I would greatly appreciate it
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June 10th, 2017, 04:33 AM   #2
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Quote:
Originally Posted by pianist View Post
Hi all,

I attached my question as a link below and highlighted the parts that I felt I didn't understand.

https://www.dropbox.com/s/99r2uo0xbatbuix/k.png?dl=0

For the first highlighted part, the relative risk is 1.45 and the percentage is 145%.
No, it doesn't. Your attachment says precisely what you have below- that a "relative risk" of 1.45 is a 45% greater risk.

Quote:
But shouldn't the interpretation say '45% greater risk of outcome' instead?

This way, it would be consistent with the interpretations below it.

If someone could explain I would greatly appreciate it
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June 10th, 2017, 04:37 AM   #3
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Thanks for replying

But i'm still a bit confused. I looked at the attachment again and it clearly says '145% greater risk of outcome' (I'm referring to the first highlighted part).

Where does it say 'relative risk" of 1.45 is a 45% greater risk'?
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