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December 27th, 2014, 03:31 AM   #1
Joined: Dec 2014
From: Belgium

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question magnetic force (current-carrying conductor)

A question that has been raised in my textbook for physics:
"In deriving the force on one of the long, current-carrying conductors, why did we use the magnetic field due to only one of the conductors? Why didn't we use the total magnetic field due to both conductors?"

Now I think that this is simply because a magnetic field induced by a current can't affect this current (via a force). However I can't seem to find a mathematical prove for this... Any suggestions?
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