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August 28th, 2014, 09:03 PM   #1
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Collatz conjecture

Missing anything??
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Last edited by jim198810; August 28th, 2014 at 09:15 PM.
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August 29th, 2014, 06:05 AM   #2
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Of course $n_0$ does not have to be the base-2 log as indicated. (Perhaps you meant the 2-adic valuation, in which case that line is correct but the conclusion does not follow.)
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August 30th, 2014, 04:49 AM   #3
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by conclusion you mean 3xi+1<2^(log_2(cx0)) ? probably its not the
right question to ask.
if ni>1 then it should be quite easy to show. Question emerges when ni=1 for certain consecutive iteration.I might have a proof for that.
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August 30th, 2014, 07:16 AM   #4
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I mean the very first use of log, on the third line.
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August 30th, 2014, 08:17 AM   #5
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2^(log_2(3(x0)+1))=2^n1 * 2^(log_2(x1)) ?
If I want to know the power of 2 on the right hand side , it must satisfy the left hand side. If I partition the left side in two part, in one part it is converted in power of 2,for other one, 2-base logarithm has been used.
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