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February 14th, 2017, 04:51 PM   #1
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Sorry, my math and English are poor, but I still want to ask a question about π(x).
If we let x/ln(x) be substituted into x, and so that becomes to be [x/ln(x)]/ln[x/ln(x)], then repeat this step over and over again; thus, is it correct that finally equals π(x)?
Would someone like to explain to me if that is correct?
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February 14th, 2017, 07:00 PM   #2
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repeated iteration of $\dfrac{x}{\ln(x)}$ results in $e,~\forall x > 1$


$1 = \ln(x)$

$x = e$

$e \neq \pi(x)$
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