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February 9th, 2017, 09:31 PM  #1 
Newbie Joined: Aug 2015 From: china Posts: 6 Thanks: 4  Riemann Hypothesis does not exist, himself has proved it
In fact, Riemann himself has proved the problem. Please look at https://arxiv.org/pdf/1508.02932v5.pdf 
February 11th, 2017, 10:41 PM  #2 
Banned Camp Joined: Dec 2012 Posts: 1,028 Thanks: 24 
Interesting, expecially knowing how much he dug deep in complex analysis.

February 12th, 2017, 05:11 PM  #3  
Newbie Joined: Aug 2015 From: china Posts: 6 Thanks: 4  Quote:
$\displaystyle \pi^{s/2}\Gamma(s/2)\zeta(s)=2\Re[\pi^{s/2}\Gamma(s/2)f(s)],\Re(s)=1/2$ nobody has pointed out why Riemann gave it since 1932. This is Riemann's conclusion in his nachlass. Namely $\displaystyle N(T)=N_0(T)$  
February 12th, 2017, 10:37 PM  #4  
Banned Camp Joined: Dec 2012 Posts: 1,028 Thanks: 24 
I'm quite sure he build all his work one this simple formula for primes: Quote:
 
February 13th, 2017, 06:40 PM  #5  
Newbie Joined: Aug 2015 From: china Posts: 6 Thanks: 4  To understand Riemann's proof, we must read Riemann's manuscript. Quote:
 
February 14th, 2017, 01:50 AM  #6 
Banned Camp Joined: Dec 2012 Posts: 1,028 Thanks: 24 
An evident trace can be found also reading: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Floor_...ling_functions It also helps in correctly rewriting Fermat the Last... 
March 10th, 2017, 06:38 AM  #7 
Banned Camp Joined: Dec 2012 Posts: 1,028 Thanks: 24  

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