May 4th, 2010, 05:34 AM  #1 
Newbie Joined: Apr 2010 From: kenya Posts: 28 Thanks: 0  How can this be solved.
for an integer m>1 show that a^m is congruent to a^(mphi(m))modulo(m) for all integers a.I tried to solve this by induction but failed.Help.

May 4th, 2010, 05:47 AM  #2 
Global Moderator Joined: Nov 2006 From: UTC 5 Posts: 16,046 Thanks: 938 Math Focus: Number theory, computational mathematics, combinatorics, FOM, symbolic logic, TCS, algorithms  Re: How can this be solved.
The order of a mod m divides the order of the group (this is called Lagrange's theorem), which is phi(m). Thus a^phi(m) = 1, which gives you the result you need.

May 4th, 2010, 06:38 AM  #3 
Newbie Joined: Apr 2010 From: kenya Posts: 28 Thanks: 0  Re: How can this be solved.
Isn't there any elementary approach apart from using Lang range's theorem because I got this from an exercise of number theory book before the theorem was discussed.

May 4th, 2010, 07:11 AM  #4 
Global Moderator Joined: Nov 2006 From: UTC 5 Posts: 16,046 Thanks: 938 Math Focus: Number theory, computational mathematics, combinatorics, FOM, symbolic logic, TCS, algorithms  Re: How can this be solved.
Do you know Fermat's little theorem? It, together with the CRT, can probably be used... but that's still a lot of machinery. I'll be honest, I can't think of a more elementary method off the top of my head. What results do you have so far?

May 4th, 2010, 07:24 AM  #5 
Newbie Joined: Apr 2010 From: kenya Posts: 28 Thanks: 0  Re: How can this be solved.
By induction I reached a point where I had to show that m divides (mphi(m);1)a^(mphi(m)1)+..........+(mphi(m);mphi(m)1)a.Am using (a;b) to mean combination of b objects from a objects.This is where I got stuck.


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