March 28th, 2017, 08:48 AM  #1 
Newbie Joined: May 2016 From: Pretoria Posts: 7 Thanks: 0  New user
Hello everyone. I am new to My Math Forum. Lourie Last edited by skipjack; April 4th, 2017 at 03:48 PM. 
March 28th, 2017, 08:50 AM  #2 
Newbie Joined: May 2016 From: Pretoria Posts: 7 Thanks: 0  Not sure where to post this one
Hi, I need a some help here.BEEN STRUGGLING WITH THESE TWO NUMBERS FOR A WHILE. Prime numbers: Euclid: [ x2 plus x plus 41 = prime number] Eg. 5 times 5 plus 5 plus 41 = 71 ( prime ). My question: Where did the 41 originate from? Did he start of with ? ( 5 times 5 ) minus 1 plus 5 plus 42 = 71. So you may ask me why 42. Draw a column and count down from 1 to 360 or as far as you need to go. Draw another column next to it and use any number from 1 to 360 as a constant. Like this: Number count Constant 1 27 2 27 3 27 4 27 up to 42 27 42 are the only number with a 22 to 27 [ 42 27 ] with the following properties. 42 plus 27 = 69 [ 69 96 =165 ] • 165 Minus 66 = 99 • 99 Minus 33 = 66 • 66 minus 33 = 33 [ with the exclusion of 78 87 and 69 9 ]  can explain later So what did the Pyramid Giza architects try to tell us with the following measures? Edge to base = 42 degrees / Edge to edge = 96 degrees / 27 steps in the grand gallery for what reason? I found many more properties in these numbers. Regards, Lourens 
March 28th, 2017, 03:36 PM  #3 
Senior Member Joined: Feb 2016 From: Australia Posts: 968 Thanks: 344 Math Focus: Yet to find out. 
Welcome to the forum!

March 28th, 2017, 11:24 PM  #4 
Global Moderator Joined: Dec 2006 Posts: 16,775 Thanks: 1236 
I doubt that we know who first noticed that property of 41.


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