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 March 27th, 2015, 05:38 PM #1 Newbie   Joined: Mar 2015 From: Belmont, CA Posts: 2 Thanks: 0 Simple Proof for FLT? With some high-school calculus and simple reasoning, this proof aims to show in less than 5 minutes that there's a much, much simpler way to proof FLT than Wiles did in 1995. (At least, that's what I think, though I find it hard to believe it could be really that easy.) So what am I missing? Where's the flaw? Let me know what you think! https://www.dropbox.com/s/elzeug6ub8wvnu3/FLT.pdf?dl=0
March 27th, 2015, 10:25 PM   #2
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Quote:
 Originally Posted by JohanII [SIZE="3"]So what am I missing? Where's the flaw?
You assume FLT in using the Bennett-Glass-Székely result.

March 27th, 2015, 10:57 PM   #3
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 Originally Posted by CRGreathouse You assume FLT in using the Bennett-Glass-Székely result.
Thanks for pointing that out. That has to be it.

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