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 May 27th, 2014, 01:40 AM #1 Senior Member   Joined: Apr 2014 From: zagreb, croatia Posts: 234 Thanks: 33 Math Focus: philosophy/found of math, metamath, logic, set/category/order/number theory, algebra, topology Invariant Theory A form is a polynomial in n variables where the sum of exponents of each term is the same. I.2 The linear transformation We are led to essentially new and deeo properties of forms through the application of linear transformations. Let $F^n$ ($x_1, x_2, \dots , x_m$) be a general form. We can derive another form from it, if we replace the m variables x by other variables x' via relations of the form $x_1 = \phi_1$ (x_1', ..., x_m'), $x_2 = \phi_2$ (x_1', ..., x_m'), ... $x_m = \phi_m$ (x_1', ..., x_m'), where the $\phi$s denote forms of the same order (the sum of exponents of the variables). I will continue this and in about 5 pages get to the question I need to ask. May 28th, 2014, 03:03 AM #2 Senior Member   Joined: Apr 2014 From: zagreb, croatia Posts: 234 Thanks: 33 Math Focus: philosophy/found of math, metamath, logic, set/category/order/number theory, algebra, topology Every invariant of a form must be homogenous in the coefficients, and every term must have degree $g = \frac{2p}{n}$, where p is that exponent of the transformation determinant by which the invariant changes under substitution of the transformed coefficients. Furthermore, all terms must have the same weight, which is also equal to p. Can someone prove this please? Tags invariant, theory Thread Tools Show Printable Version Email this Page Display Modes Linear Mode Switch to Hybrid Mode Switch to Threaded Mode Similar Threads Thread Thread Starter Forum Replies Last Post HubertM Real Analysis 1 January 19th, 2014 01:19 PM hossein-pnt Real Analysis 3 December 21st, 2012 10:28 AM sdj Computer Science 0 October 28th, 2012 09:06 PM mami Linear Algebra 0 April 27th, 2012 02:11 PM tinynerdi Linear Algebra 0 April 11th, 2010 10:48 PM

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