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 April 6th, 2017, 12:59 AM #1 Newbie   Joined: Apr 2017 From: Saudi Arabia Posts: 1 Thanks: 0 Optimization I have an optimization problem: $\begin{array}{l} \mathop {\max }\limits_{x,y} f(x,y)\\ 0 \le x \le g(y)\\ 0 \le y \le 1 \end{array}$ f is non linear in x and y. f is increasing in x and decreasing in y. g(y) is increasing in y. Can we take x=g(y) to maximize f over x than after replacing x by g(y) in the expression of f we maximize f over y. the problem is now: $\begin{array}{l} \mathop {\max }\limits_{y} f(g(y),y)\\ 0 \le y \le 1 \end{array}$ Is that possible? Thank you for your help.

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