June 21st, 2016, 01:56 AM  #1 
Newbie Joined: Sep 2015 From: Perth Posts: 18 Thanks: 3  Proof of Fermat's Last Theorem
Sorry about this. I was messing about with Fermat's Last Theorem. Could you quickly look at my "proof" and spot the mistake? http://fermatslasttheoremelementary....ttheorem.html 
June 21st, 2016, 03:18 AM  #2 
Newbie Joined: Sep 2015 From: Perth Posts: 18 Thanks: 3 
Sorry big mistakes back to the drawing board
Last edited by mathsman1; June 21st, 2016 at 03:35 AM. 
June 21st, 2016, 03:52 AM  #3 
Newbie Joined: Sep 2015 From: Perth Posts: 18 Thanks: 3  
June 21st, 2016, 05:13 AM  #4 
Newbie Joined: Sep 2015 From: Perth Posts: 18 Thanks: 3 
Sorry guys I give up 
June 21st, 2016, 11:32 AM  #5 
Math Team Joined: Jan 2015 From: Alabama Posts: 3,261 Thanks: 896 
Thank you.

June 21st, 2016, 11:42 AM  #6 
Math Team Joined: Dec 2013 From: Colombia Posts: 7,599 Thanks: 2587 Math Focus: Mainly analysis and algebra 
I'm so surprised that an "aspiring mathematician" failed to solve this in $3 \frac14$ hours.

June 21st, 2016, 12:17 PM  #7 
Newbie Joined: Sep 2015 From: Perth Posts: 18 Thanks: 3  
June 21st, 2016, 12:29 PM  #8 
Math Team Joined: Dec 2013 From: Colombia Posts: 7,599 Thanks: 2587 Math Focus: Mainly analysis and algebra 
I imagine that (almost) everything simple has been tried and tested to death. There is (almost) certainly no short proof of FLT. If there were, and Fermat knew of it, he would have given it instead of the more limited proof that he did write down. 
June 30th, 2016, 04:50 PM  #9 
Newbie Joined: Sep 2015 From: Perth Posts: 18 Thanks: 3 
Didn't want to clog the forum up with a new thread to ask this. Does Andrew Wiles, or anyone for that matter, fully understand his proof of Fermat? Supposedly it uses results from outside the specialties of Wiles. 
July 8th, 2016, 06:01 PM  #10 
Math Team Joined: Jan 2015 From: Alabama Posts: 3,261 Thanks: 896 
There is, in fact, no evidence that Fermat actually had a "simple proof" and considerable evidence that he didn't. Although the note in the margin of a book was not found until after his death, he certainly had the book and was working on problems related to the book before he published proofs for n= 3 and n= 5 thus it is likely that he wrote the note before publishing those proofs. If he had a "simple proof" for all n> 2, he would have published that proof rather than separate proof for n= 3 and n= 5. What happened was what happens to all mathematicians at some time he thought he had a proof but, on deeper consideration, discovered it did not work.


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