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April 26th, 2018, 12:44 PM   #1
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Am I missing something? Confused.

I'm completely new to groups. I am trying to follow the proof of (1) in the attached picture.

I do not understand the part in the first line of the proof of (1) where we have $(a \oplus \tilde{a})a_1$.

What I mean is, it seems strange that the $a_1$ is written right next to it. Are we assuming that multiplication is an operation as well?

That notation is not used for the whole rest of the proofs.

P.S. I don't know why the attachment is displaying sideways, I uploaded it right side up. This comes out of the book Linear Algebra by Jorg Liesen and Volker Mehrmann page 24.
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Last edited by ProofOfALifetime; April 26th, 2018 at 12:53 PM.
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April 26th, 2018, 01:14 PM   #2
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It seems like a typo.
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April 26th, 2018, 01:35 PM   #3
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Okay, thanks. I'll just try to find a different proof online.
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April 26th, 2018, 04:03 PM   #4
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Why is it so hard for them to proofread?
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