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June 25th, 2008, 08:32 AM   #1
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about Cramer rule and eigenvalue equation

Hello everyone,
In the equation A x = c , we use the Cramer rule to find the x's. When solving eigenvalue equation where c=0 and A = B - ? I , because the numerator is zero in the Cramer formula, we let denominator which is det(B - ? I), equal to zero! Why we should do it and what happens to the Cramer rule when its denominator is zero?
thanks,
R. Monfared,
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July 19th, 2008, 08:20 PM   #2
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Re: about Cramer rule and eigenvalue equation

the only thing happenes is you are forbid to use Cramer rule.
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July 29th, 2008, 12:18 PM   #3
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Re: about Cramer rule and eigenvalue equation

If it's so,then why we use the relation det(B - ? I)=0 ? I mean from where this relation comes?
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