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 June 25th, 2008, 07:32 AM #1 Newbie   Joined: Jun 2008 Posts: 6 Thanks: 0 about Cramer rule and eigenvalue equation Hello everyone, In the equation A x = c , we use the Cramer rule to find the x's. When solving eigenvalue equation where c=0 and A = B - ? I , because the numerator is zero in the Cramer formula, we let denominator which is det(B - ? I), equal to zero! Why we should do it and what happens to the Cramer rule when its denominator is zero? thanks, R. Monfared, July 19th, 2008, 07:20 PM #2 Senior Member   Joined: Jul 2008 Posts: 144 Thanks: 0 Re: about Cramer rule and eigenvalue equation the only thing happenes is you are forbid to use Cramer rule. July 29th, 2008, 11:18 AM #3 Newbie   Joined: Jun 2008 Posts: 6 Thanks: 0 Re: about Cramer rule and eigenvalue equation If it's so,then why we use the relation det(B - ? I)=0 ? I mean from where this relation comes? Tags cramer, eigenvalue, equation, rule ,

### cramer's rule and eigenvalues

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