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June 25th, 2008, 08:32 AM  #1 
Newbie Joined: Jun 2008 Posts: 6 Thanks: 0  about Cramer rule and eigenvalue equation
Hello everyone, In the equation A x = c , we use the Cramer rule to find the x's. When solving eigenvalue equation where c=0 and A = B  ? I , because the numerator is zero in the Cramer formula, we let denominator which is det(B  ? I), equal to zero! Why we should do it and what happens to the Cramer rule when its denominator is zero? thanks, R. Monfared, 
July 19th, 2008, 08:20 PM  #2 
Senior Member Joined: Jul 2008 Posts: 144 Thanks: 0  Re: about Cramer rule and eigenvalue equation
the only thing happenes is you are forbid to use Cramer rule.

July 29th, 2008, 12:18 PM  #3 
Newbie Joined: Jun 2008 Posts: 6 Thanks: 0  Re: about Cramer rule and eigenvalue equation
If it's so,then why we use the relation det(B  ? I)=0 ? I mean from where this relation comes?


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