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October 21st, 2015, 09:07 AM  #1 
Newbie Joined: Oct 2015 From: Zagreb Posts: 6 Thanks: 0  Average value of a function hypothesis
Average value of a function is a singularity of its invert !!! ???
Last edited by skipjack; October 21st, 2015 at 09:09 AM. 
October 21st, 2015, 09:11 AM  #2 
Global Moderator Joined: Dec 2006 Posts: 20,969 Thanks: 2219 
Consider the function f(x) ≡ x, which is its own inverse.

October 21st, 2015, 09:37 AM  #3 
Newbie Joined: Oct 2015 From: Zagreb Posts: 6 Thanks: 0 
Maybe where singularity is available

October 21st, 2015, 10:05 AM  #4 
Banned Camp Joined: Mar 2015 From: New Jersey Posts: 1,720 Thanks: 126 
The average value of each member of the set S of all continuous functions on [a,b] (a mapping of S to R) obviously can not have an inverse. EDIT: It can not have a UNIQUE inverse. Any number of functions can have the same average. Last edited by zylo; October 21st, 2015 at 10:15 AM. 
October 21st, 2015, 11:23 AM  #5 
Newbie Joined: Oct 2015 From: Zagreb Posts: 6 Thanks: 0 
You can have an inverse if you are looking at the (∞,∞) interval, don't know looked ok 2 me, sometimes in Physics say, for example that an average value of function sin(x) is zero.
Last edited by lukajagor; October 21st, 2015 at 11:34 AM. 

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average, function, hipotesis, hypothesis 
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