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 October 21st, 2015, 09:07 AM #1 Newbie   Joined: Oct 2015 From: Zagreb Posts: 6 Thanks: 0 Average value of a function hypothesis Average value of a function is a singularity of its invert !!! ??? Last edited by skipjack; October 21st, 2015 at 09:09 AM.
 October 21st, 2015, 09:11 AM #2 Global Moderator   Joined: Dec 2006 Posts: 20,969 Thanks: 2219 Consider the function f(x) ≡ x, which is its own inverse.
 October 21st, 2015, 09:37 AM #3 Newbie   Joined: Oct 2015 From: Zagreb Posts: 6 Thanks: 0 Maybe where singularity is available
 October 21st, 2015, 10:05 AM #4 Banned Camp   Joined: Mar 2015 From: New Jersey Posts: 1,720 Thanks: 126 The average value of each member of the set S of all continuous functions on [a,b] (a mapping of S to R) obviously can not have an inverse. EDIT: It can not have a UNIQUE inverse. Any number of functions can have the same average. Last edited by zylo; October 21st, 2015 at 10:15 AM.
 October 21st, 2015, 11:23 AM #5 Newbie   Joined: Oct 2015 From: Zagreb Posts: 6 Thanks: 0 You can have an inverse if you are looking at the (-∞,∞) interval, don't know looked ok 2 me, sometimes in Physics say, for example that an average value of function sin(x) is zero. Last edited by lukajagor; October 21st, 2015 at 11:34 AM.

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