April 11th, 2010, 10:48 PM  #1 
Senior Member Joined: Nov 2009 Posts: 129 Thanks: 0  invariant subspace
Let T be a linear operator on a vector space with a Tinvariant subspace W. Prove that if v is an eigenvector of T_w with corresponding eigenvalue ?, then the same is true for T. proof: T(v)=?v => T_w (v)=?v. implies that T = T_w. 

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