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May 21st, 2014, 02:07 AM   #1
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Simplify the area of a cone?

Is it true that a baseless cone's area is really a fraction of the area of a circle?

And if it is true, then why are the explanations about how to calculate the area so complicated? Why not calculate the area of the complete circle and then divide by the appropriate quantity?
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May 21st, 2014, 04:55 AM   #2
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I think the answer is simply: Yes.

A fraction of a circle is called a sector! (And if you curl a sector up it makes a cone.)


But, thanks for the reply.
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