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December 12th, 2014, 02:35 PM  #1 
Newbie Joined: Dec 2012 Posts: 19 Thanks: 0  Simplification step in equation
Hi, I'm currently working on a project concerning the Clausius Clapeyron equation. In the derivation they gave us, I do not understand the following step (see attachment). Can someone explain this step to me? It seems that they used the '~' sign, does this mean that they used an approximation for the first term? Thanks already! 
December 12th, 2014, 02:54 PM  #2 
Math Team Joined: Dec 2013 From: Colombia Posts: 7,685 Thanks: 2665 Math Focus: Mainly analysis and algebra 
The MacLaurin series for $\frac1{1+ax}$ is $$1ax+o(x^2)$$


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