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December 12th, 2014, 02:35 PM   #1
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Simplification step in equation


I'm currently working on a project concerning the Clausius Clapeyron equation. In the derivation they gave us, I do not understand the following step (see attachment). Can someone explain this step to me? It seems that they used the '~' sign, does this mean that they used an approximation for the first term?

Thanks already!
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File Type: jpg clausius.jpg (18.5 KB, 3 views)
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December 12th, 2014, 02:54 PM   #2
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The MacLaurin series for $\frac1{1+ax}$ is $$1-ax+o(x^2)$$
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