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 September 12th, 2019, 10:28 PM #1 Senior Member   Joined: Aug 2014 From: India Posts: 477 Thanks: 1 How to solve this Marked up price problem? A man marks up his goods by 15%. If he still incurs a loss of 5%, what percentage discount has he given to his customers? Mark up 15%; MP/CP = 115/100 Loss 5%; SP/CP = 95/100 MP/CP * Discount% = SP/CP 115/100* Discount% = 95/100 Discount% = 95/115*100 = 82.6% But answer is 17.4% Where I am doing wrong?
 September 12th, 2019, 11:50 PM #2 Senior Member   Joined: Apr 2014 From: UK Posts: 965 Thanks: 342 What you have is the amount the customer pays, not their discount. 100% - 82.6% = 17.4% discount
September 13th, 2019, 03:42 AM   #3
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Joined: Aug 2014
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Quote:
 Originally Posted by weirddave What you have is the amount the customer pays, not their discount. 100% - 82.6% = 17.4% discount
How can you tell 82.6 % is the amount the customer pays?

 September 16th, 2019, 01:11 AM #4 Senior Member   Joined: Apr 2014 From: UK Posts: 965 Thanks: 342 Because that's the maths you did. Your 'Discount%' is actually the 'Payable%'

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