Is there any trick to solve it? A man sells 2 cycles for Rs 7035 each, one at a loss of 16.67% and the other at a gain of 16.67%. What is his overall gain/loss %? Solution: Ist cycles SP = 7035 CP = ? Loss =16.67% = 5/6 IInd cycle SP = 7035 C.P = ? Profit =16.67% = 7/6 We get SP = 35 by multiply numerator of loss and profit fractions. CP1 = 35*6/5 = 42 CP2 = 35*6/7 = 30 Sum of SP = 70 Sum of CP = 72 Loss = 2 Loss% = 2/7 * 100 = 2.78% I am following this method to solve. Is there any easy method exist for this problem? 
Total cost price = Rs 7035/0.8333 + Rs 7035/1.1667 = Rs 14472.17 after rounding to 2 d.p. Overall loss percentage = (100(1  (7035 + 7035)/14472.17))% = 2.7789% approximately. 
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What is that formula you have used to calculate overall loss percentage ? 
The meaning of "2 d.p." is "2 decimal places". If one assumes that the 16.67% given in the question was an approximation of exactly (100/6)%, the loss percentage becomes exactly (25/9)%, which is 2.7778% approximately. The formula is loss percentage = (1  SP/CP)100% (or equivalently 100(1  SP/CP)%). If SP/CP > 1, the gain percentage is (SP/CP  1)100%. 
Since selling price does not matter (as long as same for both), then easier to make it 1 (instead of 7035). Then solution is quite simplified: p = 16+2/3 (given) u = 1 / (1  p/100) v = 1 / (1 + p/100) overall = 100[2(u + v)  1] = 2.777777.......% 
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How you got 0.8333 and 1.1667? 
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Denis used u for CP/SP calculated when a loss occurred, and v for CP/SP calculated when a gain occurred. 
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