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August 7th, 2017, 07:50 AM   #1
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Equivalent fraction of "ONE"

Hello guys, what is up?

Well, today I'm going to talk about FRACTIONS.



There's a curious property in fractions and as simple as it seems however I couldn't figure it out. I'm still trying get the idea.


Such property's going to be illustrated down:

First we have a general property that says: "The whole is equal all its parts".

Now a more particular fraction's property: "Any fraction of any number is equal to that number of times a fraction of 1"

1 1 2
I.E: ---- of 2 = 2 * ---- of 1 or ---- of 1
3 3 3


N N AN
Generally: ---- of A = A * ---- of 1 or ---- of 1
M M M

Of course this must be proposed only in applicate numbers for 2 cannot be divisible by 3, then I got to the point where I get stuck:

1 2 2
I.E: ---- of 2 days = ---- of 1 day, it fits because still ---- it's only
3 3 3
2
a part of a day, --- of a day cannot be greater than one day, hence I never
3
heard that a part be greater than the whole. Now a last one mere:

L = Pound
p = Pence
2 2 12
1L = 240 pence then ----> ----- of 6L = 6 * ---- of 1L or ------ of 1L
3 3 3

12 2
if you calculate it, you'll see that ----- of 1L is really = ---- of 6L,
3 3


12 12
but how could ----- be part of 1L if ----- the supposed part is greater than
3 3

1L?


Here are the values:

6L = 1440 pence


2 12
---- of 6L = 960 pence or 4 pounds, and ------ of 1L = 960P or 4P
3 3


12
Again: How may ----- be part of 1L if 960P > 1L ( 4L > 1L) ?
3

"Is all its parts greater than the whole?"



I'll be very thankful for any answer!

Thanks a lot for the attention guys, and have a nice day! Bye!

Last edited by skipjack; August 7th, 2017 at 02:36 PM.
Jeff Guercio is offline  
 
August 7th, 2017, 09:34 AM   #2
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Fractions needn't be "parts".

Obvious examples of fractions are 1/2 and 2/3. In general, though, fractions can be of the form 3/2 or 18/5.

For the rule that the whole equals (the sum of) its parts, those parts wouldn't exceed the whole.

Of course, it's still true that 3 = 4/3 + 3/2 + 1/6. In that example, the whole exceeds 1, so its parts can also exceed 1, but they don't exceed 3.
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skipjack is offline  
August 7th, 2017, 12:36 PM   #3
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Hey skipjack, well done! Even with that mess you get it right, thanks a lot!

Just now, I see the mess I made in my post; I'll try to fix it.

Last edited by skipjack; August 7th, 2017 at 02:34 PM.
Jeff Guercio is offline  
August 7th, 2017, 01:36 PM   #4
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Fixed the mess in my thread

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jeff Guercio View Post
Hello guys, what is up?

Well, today I'm going to talk about FRACTIONS.


There's a curious property in fractions and as simple as it seems however I couldn't figure it out. I'm still trying get the idea.


Such property's going to be illustrated down:

First we have a general property that says: "The whole is equal all its parts".

Now a more particular fraction's property: "Any fraction of any number is equal to that number of times a fraction of 1"


EXAMPLE: 1/3 of 2 = 2 * 1/3 of 1 or 2/3 of 1



Generally: N/M of A = A * N/M of 1 or AN/M of 1

Of course this must be proposed only in applicate numbers for 2 cannot be divisible by 3, then I got to the point where I get stuck:


EXAMPLE: 1/3 of 2 days = 2/3 of 1 day, it fits because still it's only
a part of a day, 2/3 of a day cannot be greater than one day, hence I never
heard that a part be greater than the whole. Now a last one more:

L = Pound
P = Pence

1L = 240 pence

then ----> 2/3 of 6L = 6 * 2/3 of 1L ( or 12/3 of 1L).
If you calculate it, you'll see that 12/3 of 1L is really = 2/3 of 6L,
but how could 12/3 be part of 1L if 12/3 the supposed part of 1L, is greater than 1L?

Here are the values:

6L = 1440 pence

2/3 of 6L = 960 pence or 4 pounds, and 12/3 of 1L = 960P or 4L
Again: How may 12/3 be part of 1L if 960P > 1L ( 4L > 1L) ?


"Is all its parts greater than the whole?"

I'll be very thankful for any answer!
Thanks a lot for the attention guys, and have a nice day! Bye!
Sorry for the mistakes in the first thread.

Last edited by skipjack; August 7th, 2017 at 02:39 PM.
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