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February 1st, 2016, 12:30 AM  #1 
Newbie Joined: Feb 2016 From: Indonesia Posts: 1 Thanks: 0  Simple harmonic motion damping Laplace transform help!
Ok guys, so I'm really confused as why in the second order homogenous equation of mx”(t) + cx’(t) + kx(t) = 0 where m = mass, c = drag coefficient, and k = spring constant the Laplace transform of L{x(t)} = s L{X(t)} Why isn't it L{x(t)} = s L{X(t)}  X(0)? Where exactly did the " X(0)" go? 
February 1st, 2016, 11:45 AM  #2 
Senior Member Joined: Dec 2015 From: Earth Posts: 248 Thanks: 27 
$\displaystyle x(0)=0$ (x) equals 0 for time=0 

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damping, harmonic, laplace, motion, simple, transform 
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