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 February 1st, 2016, 01:30 AM #1 Newbie   Joined: Feb 2016 From: Indonesia Posts: 1 Thanks: 0 Simple harmonic motion damping Laplace transform help! Ok guys, so I'm really confused as why in the second order homogenous equation of mx”(t) + cx’(t) + kx(t) = 0 where m = mass, c = drag coefficient, and k = spring constant the Laplace transform of L{x(t)} = s L{X(t)} Why isn't it L{x(t)} = s L{X(t)} - X(0)? Where exactly did the "- X(0)" go?
 February 1st, 2016, 12:45 PM #2 Senior Member   Joined: Dec 2015 From: Earth Posts: 321 Thanks: 42 $\displaystyle x(0)=0$ (x) equals 0 for time=0

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