December 4th, 2017, 03:20 PM  #11  
Senior Member Joined: Mar 2015 From: New Jersey Posts: 1,640 Thanks: 119  Quote:
$\displaystyle 1/\infty = 0$ $\displaystyle e^{z}=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}P_{n}(z)$ and $\displaystyle P_{n}(z) = 0$ has a solution for all n. Assumption: If something is true for all n, it is true in the limit as n $\displaystyle \rightarrow \infty$. If you are dealing with mappings from all of z to all of w, you have to deal with infinity, like it or not.  
December 4th, 2017, 03:36 PM  #12 
Global Moderator Joined: Dec 2006 Posts: 20,104 Thanks: 1907  
December 4th, 2017, 03:42 PM  #13  
Math Team Joined: Dec 2013 From: Colombia Posts: 7,559 Thanks: 2561 Math Focus: Mainly analysis and algebra  Quote:
No, because $\infty \not \in \mathbb C$.  
December 4th, 2017, 06:47 PM  #14 
Senior Member Joined: Sep 2016 From: USA Posts: 535 Thanks: 306 Math Focus: Dynamical systems, analytic function theory, numerics 
lol this is so good


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