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 August 26th, 2012, 03:19 AM #1 Newbie   Joined: Aug 2012 Posts: 8 Thanks: 0 If f(z) is analytic in the domain 0
 August 26th, 2012, 03:26 AM #2 Newbie   Joined: Aug 2012 Posts: 8 Thanks: 0 Re: If f(z) is analytic in the domain 0
August 26th, 2012, 05:49 AM   #3
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Re: If f(z) is analytic in the domain 0<Re(z)<1, then show t

Quote:
 Originally Posted by zeraoulia If f(z) is analytic in the domain 0
if $z \in \{\mathbb{D} \, \mid \, 0<\Re[z]<1\}$ then $\bar{z}, 1-z \text{ are also in } \{\mathbb{D} \, \mid \, 0<\Re[z]<1\}$

This implies that f(1-z) and f(z*) are also analytic in D.

Balarka

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 August 26th, 2012, 08:09 AM #4 Newbie   Joined: Aug 2012 Posts: 8 Thanks: 0 Re: If f(z) is analytic in the domain 0

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