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November 18th, 2014, 03:19 AM   #11
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v8archie, I just realized I need to prove this question with epsilon and M :
You know that for Every M>0 there is X0>0 so that for every x>x0 f(x)/x>M. and from here you need to prove it on the other part, say , for every N>0 there is x1>0 so that for every x>x1 f(x)-x > N.


How am I supposed to do that?

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