March 29th, 2014, 08:13 AM  #1 
Senior Member Joined: Apr 2012 Posts: 135 Thanks: 1  improper integral
i have the following integral: integral from 1 to pi/2 arcsinx/(x^2). The integral from 1 to 0 gives oo and from 0 to pi/2 +oo... what is the conclusion here? Or integral from 1 to 1 1/x is this equal with 0? because we have the same amount of "infinity" on both sides. It is necessary to solve the other side of the improper integral if the first one is divergent? And the last question: It is possible to have oo on one side , +oo on the other side and the integral to converge? Thank you! 
April 1st, 2014, 09:47 AM  #2 
Math Team Joined: Aug 2012 From: Sana'a , Yemen Posts: 1,177 Thanks: 44 Math Focus: Theory of analytic functions 
$$ \int^1_{1} \frac{1}{x} \, dx \neq 0 $$ because the integral actually diverges. The function has no antiderivative on the specified region. 

Tags 
improper, integral 
Thread Tools  
Display Modes  

Similar Threads  
Thread  Thread Starter  Forum  Replies  Last Post 
Improper integral with e  unwisetome3  Calculus  2  April 8th, 2013 11:45 AM 
improper integral  mathrookie2012  Calculus  7  April 21st, 2012 09:14 PM 
Improper Integral  chapsticks  Calculus  1  February 26th, 2012 12:59 PM 
Improper Integral :(  citbquinn  Calculus  2  March 15th, 2011 11:42 AM 
improper integral  izseekzu  Calculus  1  April 13th, 2010 04:37 PM 