December 23rd, 2012, 08:44 AM  #1 
Newbie Joined: Dec 2012 Posts: 18 Thanks: 0  Improper integral
So i calculate this improper integral, given as an attachment. The final solution should be ln(2). But the last step says:  ln(R) + ln(2) + ln(R1)  ln(1) If you replace R by ? you should get:  ln(?) + ln(2) + ln(? 1)  0) So i do not understand why  ln(?) and ln(?  1) can be set equal to 0 so the final solution is ln(2)? I thought ln(?) = ? ? 
December 23rd, 2012, 08:51 AM  #2 
Math Team Joined: Aug 2012 From: Sana'a , Yemen Posts: 1,177 Thanks: 44 Math Focus: Theory of analytic functions  Re: Improper integral 

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