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May 2nd, 2012, 10:09 AM   #1
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A question on binomial series for derivates



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May 2nd, 2012, 01:49 PM   #2
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Re: A question on binomial series for derivates

Ordinary notation - no! The square of the first derivative is not equal to the second derivative, while the product of first partials is not equal the the second mixed partial.
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