February 4th, 2011, 05:19 AM  #1 
Member Joined: Feb 2011 Posts: 58 Thanks: 0  Analysis question
suppose that f : (a,b)\{c} > real numbers is a function such that lim (x>c+) {f(x)} and lim (x>c) {f(x)} both exist and are equal to a common value l. how can we actually prove that lim (x>c) {f(x)} exists and that it equals l? 

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