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January 22nd, 2011, 11:57 PM  #1 
Newbie Joined: Jan 2011 Posts: 1 Thanks: 0  Why this integration comes out to be zero always
integration( e^(j(mn)t) dt ) for m!=n, this integration is always zero. Why? 
January 23rd, 2011, 03:05 AM  #2  
Global Moderator Joined: Oct 2008 From: London, Ontario, Canada  The Forest City Posts: 7,757 Thanks: 1008 Math Focus: Elementary mathematics and beyond  Re: Why this integration comes out to be zero always Quote:
 

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