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January 22nd, 2011, 11:57 PM   #1
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Why this integration comes out to be zero always

integration( e^(j(m-n)t) dt )

for m!=n, this integration is always zero.

Why?
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January 23rd, 2011, 03:05 AM   #2
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Re: Why this integration comes out to be zero always

Quote:
Originally Posted by faraday007
this integration is always zero
Over what bounds?



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