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 January 22nd, 2011, 11:57 PM #1 Newbie   Joined: Jan 2011 Posts: 1 Thanks: 0 Why this integration comes out to be zero always integration( e^(j(m-n)t) dt ) for m!=n, this integration is always zero. Why?
January 23rd, 2011, 03:05 AM   #2
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Re: Why this integration comes out to be zero always

Quote:
 Originally Posted by faraday007 this integration is always zero
Over what bounds?

$\int e^{t(jm\,-\,jn)}\,dt\,=\,\frac{e^{t(jm\,-\,jn)}}{jm\,-\,jn}\,+\,C,\,m\,\ne\,n,\,j\,\ne\,0$

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