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August 10th, 2013, 09:14 AM   #1
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Question in Stokes and Divergence theorem.

In page 3 of this articlehttp://faculty.uml.edu/cbaird/95 ... sition.pdf

I have two question:

I use for and for in the article.




(1) it said where this term goes to zero as . But not the . Why is this true?

(2). Again, how do I proof this surface integral goes to zero at infinity?

Please help, Thanks.
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