
Applied Math Applied Math Forum 
 LinkBack  Thread Tools  Display Modes 
November 21st, 2012, 08:22 AM  #1 
Newbie Joined: Nov 2012 Posts: 3 Thanks: 0  Proof of Transcendence of constant e
Hello all, I'm a first year university student who is tasked with giving a presentation on the transcendence of e. I have a very basic grasp of the proof that we have been given to understand, however any explanations of ANY parts of the proof is very much appreciated as the math is way above my head (not quite sure if the proof itself is sound). Below is the pasted LATEX text of our proof as is right now. Please also list the topics that, in your opinion, must be covered in the 20minute mathematical presentation of the topic. Any help is much appreciated, thanks in advance! 
November 21st, 2012, 08:23 AM  #2 
Newbie Joined: Nov 2012 Posts: 3 Thanks: 0  Re: Proof of Transcendence of constant e
To begin, we must assume that $e$ is algebraic. We suppose that $e$ is a root of the polynomial $g(x)=b_0+b_1x^1+...+b_rx^r$ where $b_i$ are in $\mathbb{Z}$ and $b_r$ doesn't not equal 0. $$I_p= \displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{r} b_k \int^k_0 e^{kx} f(x)dx$$ We will show that for $p$ large enough, $I_p$ is an integer, does not equal 0, but is arbitrarily close to 0. Assume that $e$ is algebraic. Suppose that it is a root of the polynomial $g(x)=b_0+b_1x^1+...+b_rx^r$ where $b_i$ are in $\mathbb{Z}$ and $b_r$ doesn't not equal 0. $$I_p= \displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{r} b_k \int^k_0 e^{kx} f(x)dx$$ We will show that for $p$ large enough, $I_p$ is an integer, does not equal 0, but is arbitrarily close to 0. $$\int^t_0 e^{x} f(x)dx = \int^t_0 (e^{x})' f(x)dx$$ Using integration by parts, we obtain the following expression. $$e^{x} f(x) A  \int^t_0 (e^{x}) f'(x)dx$$ Plug in t, $$e^{t}f(t) + f(0) + \int^t_0(e^{x}f'(x)dx$$ $$e^{t} \sum^n_{k=0} f^k (t) + \sum^n_k=0 f^k (0)$$ {\bf{Proof by contradiction}} We will assume that $e$ is algebraic. The equation for the coefficients of the polynomial $e$ is $c_0 + c_1e+..+c_me^m=0$ $$f_p(x) = \frac{x^{p1}(x1)^p(x2)^p...(xk)^p}{(p1)!}$$ The first p derivatives of $k$ $(x1)^p g(x)$ $$f_p'(x) = p(x1)^{p1} g(x) + (x1)^p g'(x)$$ Either will =0, or will cancel with (p1)! and give integer. $$I_p= \sum^m_k=0 c_k e^k \int^k_0 e^{x} f_p(x) dx$$ $$= \sum^m_{k=0} c_k e^k \left( e^{k} \sum^n_{i=0} f^i (k) + \sum^n_{i=0} f^i (0)\right)$$ $$ \sum^m_{k=0} c_k (e^k)(e^{k}) \sum^n_{i=0} f_p^i (k) + \left(\sum^m_{k=0} c_ke^k\right) \left(\sum^n_{i=0} f^i (0)\right)$$ $$= \sum^m_{k=0} \sum^n_{i=0} c_k f_p^i (k)$$ Now, we will prove that this number does not equal 0 by showing that it is nondivisble by a prime number. Zero is of course divisible by any number, therefore a contradiction proves this point. $$\sum^m_{k=0} \sum^n_{i=p} c_k f_p^i (k)  \sum^n_{i=p1} c_0 f^i (0)$$ Where $\sum^m_{k=0} \sum^n_{i=p} c_k f_p^i (k)$ is divisble by p. If this part is differentiated $p$ times, everything can give you a nonzero that has a factor of p. $$\sum^n_{i=p1} c_0 ^{f(i)} (0) = c_0 f^{p1} (0) + \sum^n_{i=p} c_0 f^{(i)} (0)$$ To get the nonzero, we will target $x^{p1}$ times. Extra factor remains of p when you apply one derivative. $\sum^n_{i=p} c_0 f^i (0)$ is divisble by p. So far, we have shown that $I_p \neq 0$, and that $I_p$ is and integer. We will now justify that as p tends to infinity, $I_p$ tends to 0. $$If\ you\ have\ a\ function \Rightarrow \left  g(x) \right \leq M \ on \ \left [ a,b \right ],$$ $$then \left  \int_{b}^{a} g(x)dx \right \leq M(ba)$$ From here, we will estimate the integral of $\left  \int_{b}^{a} e^{x}f_p(x)dx \right $ where $0\leq a\leq m$ If $0\leq a\leq m$, then the difference $\left  xj \right $ is less than $m$. $$\left  e^{x} f_p(x) \right \leq \left  f_p(x) \right  = \left  \frac{x^{p1}(x1)^p...(xk)^p}{(p1)!} \right $$ $$\left  \frac{x^{p1}(x1)^p...(xk)^p}{(p1)!} \right \leq \left  \frac{m^{p1}m^p...m^p}{(p1)!} \right $$ $$=\frac{m^{(m+1)p+1}}{(p1)!} < \frac{m^{(m+1)p}}{(p1)!} = \frac{m^{(m+1)^p}}{(p1)!}\rightarrow \bf0 $$ Therefore, we can see that as $p$ tends to infinity, $I_p$ tends to 0. This limit tends to 0 because it is simply the limit $\lim_{n \to \infty } \frac{c^n}{n!} = 0$ in a more complicated form. This can be proved as follows: Let $k$ be any natual number greater than $\ 2 \left  c \right $. If $k>2 \left  c \right $, then $ \frac{ \left  c \right  } {k} < \frac{1} {2} $ and morever $\frac{\left  c \right }{k}<\frac{1}{2}$ for $n\geq k$. $$\frac{c^n}{n!} = \frac{c^k}{k!} \cdot \frac{c}{k} \cdot \frac{c}{k+1} \cdot ... \cdot \frac{c}{n} < \frac{c^k}{k!}\cdot \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2} \cdot...\cdot \frac{1}{2}$$ where $ \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2} \cdot...\cdot \frac{1}{2} = \bf{nk}$. Therefore the above equation equals: $$\frac{c^k}{k!} \cdot \frac{1}{2^{nk}} = 2^k\left ( \frac{c^k}{k!} \right )\frac{1}{2^{n}}$$ in which $\frac{1}{2^{n}}$ tends to 0. Therefore: $$\lim_{n \to \infty } \frac{c^n}{n!} = 0$$ 
November 21st, 2012, 01:46 PM  #3 
Global Moderator Joined: May 2007 Posts: 6,663 Thanks: 649  Re: Proof of Transcendence of constant e
Your Latex is screwed up.

November 22nd, 2012, 07:01 AM  #4 
Newbie Joined: Nov 2012 Posts: 3 Thanks: 0  Re: Proof of Transcendence of constant e
\documentclass[11pt]{article} \usepackage{amsmath} \usepackage{amsfonts} \setlength{\parindent}{0pt} \setlength{\parskip}{12pt} \begin{document} To begin, we must assume that $e$ is algebraic. We suppose that $e$ is a root of the polynomial $g(x)=b_0+b_1x^1+...+b_rx^r$ where $b_i$ are in $\mathbb{Z}$ and $b_r$ doesn't not equal 0. $$I_p= \displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{r} b_k \int^k_0 e^{kx} f(x)dx$$ We will show that for $p$ large enough, $I_p$ is an integer, does not equal 0, but is arbitrarily close to 0. Assume that $e$ is algebraic. Suppose that it is a root of the polynomial $g(x)=b_0+b_1x^1+...+b_rx^r$ where $b_i$ are in $\mathbb{Z}$ and $b_r$ doesn't not equal 0. $$I_p= \displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{r} b_k \int^k_0 e^{kx} f(x)dx$$ We will show that for $p$ large enough, $I_p$ is an integer, does not equal 0, but is arbitrarily close to 0. $$\int^t_0 e^{x} f(x)dx = \int^t_0 (e^{x})' f(x)dx$$ Using integration by parts, we obtain the following expression. $$e^{x} f(x) A  \int^t_0 (e^{x}) f'(x)dx$$ Plug in t, $$e^{t}f(t) + f(0) + \int^t_0(e^{x}f'(x)dx$$ $$e^{t} \sum^n_{k=0} f^k (t) + \sum^n_k=0 f^k (0)$$ {\bf{Proof by contradiction}} We will assume that $e$ is algebraic. The equation for the coefficients of the polynomial $e$ is $c_0 + c_1e+..+c_me^m=0$ $$f_p(x) = \frac{x^{p1}(x1)^p(x2)^p...(xk)^p}{(p1)!}$$ The first p derivatives of $k$ $(x1)^p g(x)$ $$f_p'(x) = p(x1)^{p1} g(x) + (x1)^p g'(x)$$ Either will =0, or will cancel with (p1)! and give integer. $$I_p= \sum^m_k=0 c_k e^k \int^k_0 e^{x} f_p(x) dx$$ $$= \sum^m_{k=0} c_k e^k \left( e^{k} \sum^n_{i=0} f^i (k) + \sum^n_{i=0} f^i (0)\right)$$ $$ \sum^m_{k=0} c_k (e^k)(e^{k}) \sum^n_{i=0} f_p^i (k) + \left(\sum^m_{k=0} c_ke^k\right) \left(\sum^n_{i=0} f^i (0)\right)$$ $$= \sum^m_{k=0} \sum^n_{i=0} c_k f_p^i (k)$$ Now, we will prove that this number does not equal 0 by showing that it is nondivisble by a prime number. Zero is of course divisible by any number, therefore a contradiction proves this point. $$\sum^m_{k=0} \sum^n_{i=p} c_k f_p^i (k)  \sum^n_{i=p1} c_0 f^i (0)$$ Where $\sum^m_{k=0} \sum^n_{i=p} c_k f_p^i (k)$ is divisble by p. If this part is differentiated $p$ times, everything can give you a nonzero that has a factor of p. $$\sum^n_{i=p1} c_0 ^{f(i)} (0) = c_0 f^{p1} (0) + \sum^n_{i=p} c_0 f^{(i)} (0)$$ To get the nonzero, we will target $x^{p1}$ times. Extra factor remains of p when you apply one derivative. $\sum^n_{i=p} c_0 f^i (0)$ is divisble by p. So far, we have shown that $I_p \neq 0$, and that $I_p$ is and integer. We will now justify that as p tends to infinity, $I_p$ tends to 0. $$If\ you\ have\ a\ function \Rightarrow \left  g(x) \right \leq M \ on \ \left [ a,b \right ],$$ $$then \left  \int_{b}^{a} g(x)dx \right \leq M(ba)$$ From here, we will estimate the integral of $\left  \int_{b}^{a} e^{x}f_p(x)dx \right $ where $0\leq a\leq m$ If $0\leq a\leq m$, then the difference $\left  xj \right $ is less than $m$. $$\left  e^{x} f_p(x) \right \leq \left  f_p(x) \right  = \left  \frac{x^{p1}(x1)^p...(xk)^p}{(p1)!} \right $$ $$\left  \frac{x^{p1}(x1)^p...(xk)^p}{(p1)!} \right \leq \left  \frac{m^{p1}m^p...m^p}{(p1)!} \right $$ $$=\frac{m^{(m+1)p+1}}{(p1)!} < \frac{m^{(m+1)p}}{(p1)!} = \frac{m^{(m+1)^p}}{(p1)!}\rightarrow \bf0 $$ Therefore, we can see that as $p$ tends to infinity, $I_p$ tends to 0. This limit tends to 0 because it is simply the limit $\lim_{n \to \infty } \frac{c^n}{n!} = 0$ in a more complicated form. This can be proved as follows: Let $k$ be any natual number greater than $\ 2 \left  c \right $. If $k>2 \left  c \right $, then $ \frac{ \left  c \right  } {k} < \frac{1} {2} $ and morever $\frac{\left  c \right }{k}<\frac{1}{2}$ for $n\geq k$. $$\frac{c^n}{n!} = \frac{c^k}{k!} \cdot \frac{c}{k} \cdot \frac{c}{k+1} \cdot ... \cdot \frac{c}{n} < \frac{c^k}{k!}\cdot \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2} \cdot...\cdot \frac{1}{2}$$ where $ \frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{1}{2} \cdot...\cdot \frac{1}{2} = \bf{nk}$. Therefore the above equation equals: $$\frac{c^k}{k!} \cdot \frac{1}{2^{nk}} = 2^k\left ( \frac{c^k}{k!} \right )\frac{1}{2^{n}}$$ in which $\frac{1}{2^{n}}$ tends to 0. Therefore: $$\lim_{n \to \infty } \frac{c^n}{n!} = 0$$ \end{document} 
November 22nd, 2012, 02:16 PM  #5 
Global Moderator Joined: May 2007 Posts: 6,663 Thanks: 649  Re: Proof of Transcendence of constant e
Have you tried reading it? I can't.


Tags 
constant, proof, transcendence 
Thread Tools  
Display Modes  

Similar Threads  
Thread  Thread Starter  Forum  Replies  Last Post 
Transcendence of Gelfond'slike Constants  mathbalarka  Number Theory  23  May 9th, 2013 06:28 AM 
Conjecture regarding transcendence of a number  mathbalarka  Calculus  0  September 3rd, 2012 08:02 AM 
Limit and Transcendence  mathbalarka  Applied Math  3  June 14th, 2012 01:43 PM 
Is this a constant???  JamieStarr  Algebra  3  November 24th, 2010 04:18 PM 
Limit and Transcendence  mathbalarka  Number Theory  1  December 31st, 1969 04:00 PM 