March 24th, 2011, 03:47 PM  #1 
Newbie Joined: Mar 2011 Posts: 2 Thanks: 0  absorption laws:
I thought that (A?B')?B=A?B. is proven by the above law however that seems too simple. Is that completely wrong or is there another way. thankyou 
March 24th, 2011, 08:33 PM  #2 
Senior Member Joined: Nov 2006 From: I'm a figment of my own imagination :? Posts: 848 Thanks: 0  Re: absorption laws:
It isn't quite the absorption law, because B' is inside the parentheses, while the quantity outside the parentheses is B. However, it is certainly true that \cup(A\cap B)=A" />, and that . From this, we can conclude that \cup B\supseteq A\cap B'\cup(A\cap B)=A" /> and then we can take the union of each side with B to derive \cup B\supseteq A\cup B" />. But we also have \cup B\subseteq A\cup B" /> trivially, and therefore \cup B=A\cup B" />.

March 25th, 2011, 12:03 AM  #3 
Newbie Joined: Mar 2011 Posts: 2 Thanks: 0  Re: absorption laws:
Thats brilliant, I get it. Thanks very much. Im trying to stay within the laws as well. Are these specific to each law? 

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