My Math Forum Algebra problem............?

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 November 27th, 2010, 04:32 AM #1 Newbie   Joined: Nov 2010 Posts: 8 Thanks: 0 Algebra problem............? If (F/B)^(?*cot?) = (2?*P*cot? + 2Y) prove that p=Y(1+(tan?)/?)(1-(F/B)^(?*cot?)) Thanks in advance
 November 27th, 2010, 04:54 AM #2 Senior Member     Joined: Oct 2010 From: Changchun, China Posts: 492 Thanks: 14 Re: Algebra problem............? Is it to prove $(\frac{F}{B})^{\mu\cot\alpha}= 2\mu P \cot\alpha + 2Y \to P=Y(1+\frac{\tan\alpha}{\mu})(1-(\frac{F}{B})^{\mu\cot\alpha})$ ?
 November 27th, 2010, 04:58 AM #3 Newbie   Joined: Nov 2010 Posts: 8 Thanks: 0 Re: Algebra problem............? Stainburg .. YES
 November 27th, 2010, 05:00 AM #4 Newbie   Joined: Nov 2010 Posts: 8 Thanks: 0 Re: Algebra problem............? I guess it can't be proven ... but is there even an approximation ?
November 27th, 2010, 05:09 AM   #5
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Joined: Oct 2010
From: Changchun, China

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Re: Algebra problem............?

Quote:
 Originally Posted by usEngineer I guess it can't be proven ... but is there even an approximation ?
Me too. But I think anything could be possible..., so I'm trying to apply the Maclaurin expansion.

November 27th, 2010, 05:12 AM   #6
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Joined: Nov 2010

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Re: Algebra problem............?

Quote:
Originally Posted by stainburg
Quote:
 Originally Posted by usEngineer I guess it can't be proven ... but is there even an approximation ?
Me too. But I think anything could be possible..., so I'm trying to apply the Maclaurin expansion.
Thanks for ur time

 November 27th, 2010, 05:24 AM #7 Newbie   Joined: Nov 2010 Posts: 8 Thanks: 0 Re: Algebra problem............? Dear If it's impossible can this be proven ? when (F/B)^(?*cot?) = (2?*P*cot? + 2Y)/Y to prove the same ?
 November 27th, 2010, 06:02 AM #8 Senior Member     Joined: Oct 2010 From: Changchun, China Posts: 492 Thanks: 14 Re: Algebra problem............? seems no way too. I just wonder how the author put things together?
 November 27th, 2010, 01:55 PM #9 Global Moderator   Joined: Dec 2006 Posts: 21,020 Thanks: 2256 It could of course be proved from ${\small{(F/B)}}^{\mu\cot\alpha}\,=\,1\,-\,\,\frac{P}{Y(1\,+\,\frac{\tan\alpha}{\mu})}.$

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